DHA Exam Questions for Dentists 2026: What the DHA General Dentist Paper (GEN5301) Tests, Pass Mark and Image-based Format, Why the 'DHA Dental Questions PDF' Files Are Outdated, and 20 Free DHA-style MCQs with Answers Across Restorative, Endodontics, Periodontics, Oral Surgery, Prosthodontics, Paediatric Dentistry and Radiology
Back to blog

DHA Exam Questions for Dentists 2026: What the DHA General Dentist Paper (GEN5301) Tests, Pass Mark and Image-based Format, Why the 'DHA Dental Questions PDF' Files Are Outdated, and 20 Free DHA-style MCQs with Answers Across Restorative, Endodontics, Periodontics, Oral Surgery, Prosthodontics, Paediatric Dentistry and Radiology

Preparing for the DHA exam for dentists? This guide explains the Dubai Health Authority general dentist paper (GEN5301) in 2026: the number of questions, time, pass mark and image-based blueprint, how specialist dentists are examined, why the 'DHA dental exam questions PDF' files fail candidates, and 20 free DHA-style MCQs with answers and explanations across restorative dentistry, endodontics, periodontics, oral surgery, prosthodontics, paediatric dentistry, radiology, pharmacology and infection control.

The DHA exam for dentists is the general dentist paper (GEN5301) for BDS and DMD holders, with separate papers for each dental specialty, delivered by Prometric after the Dubai Health Authority confirms eligibility on Sheryan. It is the most image-heavy of the DHA papers: radiographs, clinical photographs and charts appear throughout, and candidates who prepare only from text lists are caught out. The recalled "DHA dental questions" PDFs shared in groups fail candidates for that reason and because their answers reflect older protocols. This guide explains the format and gives 20 free DHA-style questions with answers. The licence route is in the DHA licence for dentists and the plan in DHA dental exam preparation.

The DHA general dentist exam at a glance (2026)

ItemGeneral Dentist (GEN5301)
DeliveryComputer-based at Prometric centres worldwide, booked after Sheryan issues eligibility
QuestionsAbout 150 single-best-answer MCQs, many with radiographs or clinical images
TimeAbout 3 hours
Pass markAbout 60% (the eligibility letter is the authoritative source; see DHA passing score by profession)
BlueprintRestorative dentistry and endodontics (largest), prosthodontics, periodontics, oral surgery and oral medicine, paediatric dentistry and orthodontics, oral radiology, pharmacology and local anaesthesia, infection control, ethics and UAE regulations
SpecialistsA separate paper per specialty (for example ORD5211 orthodontics, END5021 endodontics, PRO5051 prosthodontics, PER5131 periodontics, PED5911 paediatric dentistry, OMS5351 oral and maxillofacial surgery)
Attempts and feeUsually three per eligibility; about USD 220 to 300 per attempt (DHA fees)

Why the "DHA dental exam questions PDF" fails candidates

  • No images: a text recall cannot reproduce the radiographs and photographs that carry a large share of the marks.
  • Outdated protocols: the files pre-date the 2017 periodontal classification, bioceramic pulp therapy, the Hall technique, silver diamine fluoride and current trauma guidelines.
  • Unverified answers with error rates of 20 to 30% in the files our tutors check.
  • No timing practice for a 150-question, image-based paper (more on the PDF trap).

20 free DHA-style questions for dentists

Restorative and endodontics

1. Lingering pain to cold that persists after the stimulus is removed, with spontaneous night pain, indicates: (A) reversible pulpitis (B) symptomatic irreversible pulpitis (C) dentine hypersensitivity (D) normal pulp. Answer: B.

2. The ideal apical extent of a root filling is: (A) 2 mm beyond the apex (B) at the working length, 0.5 to 2 mm short of the radiographic apex, dense with no voids (C) 5 mm short (D) level with the apex in every case. Answer: B.

3. A 1 mm pinpoint pulp exposure during caries removal in a young adult with reversible pulpitis and prompt haemostasis is best managed by: (A) root canal treatment (B) direct pulp capping with MTA or Biodentine and a well-sealed restoration (C) a temporary and review in a year (D) extraction. Answer: B.

4. Which irrigant combination is never mixed in the canal? (A) hypochlorite and EDTA sequentially (B) hypochlorite and chlorhexidine together, which form a precipitate (C) saline and EDTA (D) hypochlorite and saline. Answer: B.

Periodontics

5. Under the 2017 classification, a patient with interdental attachment loss of 5 mm, bone loss to the middle third and two teeth lost to periodontitis is: (A) stage I (B) stage III (C) stage II (D) stage IV. Answer: B.

6. A cobalt-chromium partial denture clasp should engage an undercut of: (A) 0.75 mm (B) 0.25 mm (C) 1.0 mm (D) none. Answer: B.

7. Systemic antibiotics in periodontitis are reserved for: (A) every stage II patient (B) selected cases such as generalised stage III grade C in young adults, given with subgingival instrumentation (C) all smokers (D) patients who decline scaling. Answer: B.

Oral surgery and oral medicine

8. A patient on warfarin with an INR of 2.8 needs two simple extractions. Management: (A) stop warfarin for five days (B) proceed with local haemostatic measures without stopping warfarin (C) admit for heparin bridging (D) give vitamin K. Answer: B.

9. Severe throbbing pain and an empty socket with exposed bone four days after a difficult extraction, without fever or swelling, is: (A) osteomyelitis (B) alveolar osteitis; irrigate and place a sedative dressing, no antibiotics without infection (C) a retained root (D) fracture. Answer: B.

10. A 60-year-old smokeless tobacco user has a 2.5 cm indurated non-healing ulcer of the lateral tongue. Next step: (A) antibiotics (B) biopsy within two weeks for suspected squamous cell carcinoma (C) chlorhexidine (D) review in three months. Answer: B.

11. Bilateral submandibular and sublingual swelling with raised tongue, drooling and trismus is: (A) mumps (B) Ludwig's angina, an airway emergency (C) sialadenitis (D) allergy. Answer: B.

Prosthodontics

12. With a rest vertical dimension of 68 mm, the occlusal vertical dimension is set at about: (A) 68 mm (B) 65 to 66 mm, allowing 2 to 4 mm freeway space (C) 60 mm (D) 72 mm. Answer: B.

13. The ferrule that most improves the prognosis of a post-crowned tooth is: (A) 0.5 mm (B) at least 1.5 to 2 mm of sound circumferential dentine above the margin (C) none (D) 5 mm. Answer: B.

Paediatric dentistry

14. The maximum dose of 2% lidocaine with adrenaline in a 20 kg child at 4.4 mg/kg is about: (A) 1 cartridge (B) 2.4 cartridges, so no more than two full cartridges (C) 5 cartridges (D) 8 cartridges. Answer: B.

15. A vital primary molar with a carious exposure, no spontaneous pain and no radiographic pathology is treated by: (A) pulpectomy with gutta-percha (B) pulpotomy with MTA or ferric sulfate and a stainless steel crown (C) extraction (D) direct pulp cap. Answer: B.

16. An avulsed permanent incisor should be: (A) stored in water (B) replanted immediately or stored in milk, saline or saliva; primary teeth are not replanted (C) stored dry (D) scrubbed. Answer: B.

Radiology, pharmacology and infection control

17. A well-defined unilocular radiolucency attached at the cementoenamel junction of an unerupted third molar is most likely: (A) keratocyst (B) dentigerous cyst (C) ameloblastoma (D) radicular cyst. Answer: B.

18. Antibiotic prophylaxis before an extraction is indicated for: (A) any heart murmur (B) a prosthetic heart valve or previous endocarditis (C) a hip replacement two years ago (D) all diabetics. Answer: B.

19. A patient on intravenous zoledronic acid for bone metastases needs an extraction. The pharmacology concern is: (A) bleeding (B) medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw; avoid extraction where possible and manage conservatively (C) allergy (D) hypertension. Answer: B.

20. Dental handpieces between patients must be: (A) wiped with alcohol (B) cleaned, lubricated and sterilised in an autoclave, with waterlines flushed and single-use items discarded (C) soaked in chlorhexidine (D) reused if visibly clean. Answer: B.

How to prepare for the DHA dental exam

  1. Confirm your title (general dentist or specialist) with the free eligibility check; the title decides the paper.
  2. Work through the General Dentist bank (5,496 explained MCQs in 55 chapters with images, chapter 1 free) with an error log (error-log method); specialists use their specialty bank.
  3. Use the free sets: dentist questions and the specialist sets for endodontics, periodontics, prosthodontics, orthodontics, paediatric dentistry and oral surgery.
  4. Sit three timed image-based mocks, then book through Prometric once Sheryan shows eligibility (how to apply for a DHA licence).

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are in the DHA exam for dentists?

About 150 MCQs with images in about 3 hours for the general dentist paper, with a pass mark of about 60%; specialist papers are 100 to 150 questions.

Does the DHA dental exam include radiographs?

Yes. Radiographs and clinical photographs appear throughout, which is why image-based practice matters.

Is the DHA dental exam the same as the MOH, DOH and SDLE exams?

The blueprint is shared across the UAE authorities (DOH uses Pearson VUE); the Saudi SDLE is longer and scaled but covers the same content.

Where can I get free DHA dental exam questions?

The 20 questions above, the free dentist set linked in this article, and the free chapter 1 of the General Dentist bank.

How long should a dentist prepare for the DHA exam?

Four to eight weeks of daily practice with images for dentists in current practice; longer after a practice gap.

Practice banks for this exam

Chapter-wise MCQs with written reasoning on every question, and timed mocks at the real pass mark.