Prometric Exam Questions for Dentists 2026: 15 Practice MCQs with Answers and Rationale

The general dentist Prometric exam for DHA, MOHAP, SHA, SCFHS, QCHP, NHRA and OMSB is a 100 to 150 question single-best-answer paper over 2 to 3 hours, pass mark about 60%. It covers the full undergraduate curriculum with a clinical bias: diagnosis and treatment planning, restorative dentistry and endodontics, periodontics, oral surgery, prosthodontics, paediatric dentistry, oral medicine and pathology, radiology, dental pharmacology and infection control.

The fifteen questions below follow the format and level of the real paper. Work them under time pressure, then read the rationale for each. For the syllabus and per-authority differences read the Prometric exam for dentists guide; for timed mocks use the practice exam banks.

Diagnosis, oral medicine and pathology

Question 1

A 45-year-old smoker presents with a painless white patch on the lateral border of the tongue that cannot be wiped off and has been present for three months. The most appropriate management is:

1. Reassure and review in one year
2. Prescribe antifungal therapy and review
3. Incisional biopsy for histopathology
4. Apply topical steroid

Answer: C. A persistent, non-wipeable white patch in a smoker at a high-risk site is leukoplakia until proven otherwise and requires biopsy to exclude dysplasia or carcinoma. Antifungals are for candidiasis, which wipes off; reassurance risks missing malignancy.

Question 2

Which radiographic finding is most characteristic of a periapical granuloma or cyst?

1. Widening of the periodontal ligament space only
2. Well-defined radiolucency at the apex of a non-vital tooth
3. Diffuse radiopacity in the bone
4. Loss of lamina dura with a floating tooth appearance

Answer: B. A well-circumscribed periapical radiolucency associated with a non-vital tooth is the classic appearance of a periapical granuloma or radicular cyst. Pulp vitality testing distinguishes it from lesions of vital teeth, and the two cannot be reliably separated radiographically.

Question 3

A patient reports a sharp pain on biting that resolves on release, with no pain to hot or cold. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Irreversible pulpitis
2. Cracked tooth syndrome
3. Acute apical abscess
4. Dentine hypersensitivity

Answer: B. Sharp pain on biting that stops on release, often localised to one cusp with a tooth-slooth, is characteristic of a cracked tooth. Irreversible pulpitis gives lingering thermal pain, and an abscess gives constant pain with tenderness to percussion.

Restorative dentistry and endodontics

Question 4

The working length in root canal treatment is usually established:

1. At the radiographic apex
2. 0.5 to 1 mm short of the radiographic apex, confirmed with an electronic apex locator
3. 2 to 3 mm beyond the apex
4. At the cemento-enamel junction

Answer: B. The apical constriction lies on average 0.5 to 1 mm short of the radiographic apex. Preparing to that point, confirmed with an apex locator and radiograph, avoids extrusion of irrigant and filling material while cleaning the full canal.

Question 5

Which irrigant is preferred for dissolving organic pulp tissue during root canal treatment?

1. Chlorhexidine 2%
2. Saline
3. Sodium hypochlorite
4. EDTA 17%

Answer: C. Sodium hypochlorite dissolves organic tissue and is antimicrobial, which is why it is the primary irrigant. EDTA removes the inorganic smear layer, chlorhexidine is antimicrobial but does not dissolve tissue, and saline does neither.

Question 6

A deep carious lesion in a symptomless vital molar is close to the pulp. Caries removal leaves sound dentine with no exposure. The most appropriate next step is:

1. Pulpotomy
2. Indirect pulp cap with a calcium hydroxide or MTA liner and a well-sealed restoration
3. Extraction
4. Root canal treatment

Answer: B. With a vital, symptomless pulp and no exposure, an indirect pulp cap with a biocompatible liner and a good coronal seal allows reparative dentine formation and avoids unnecessary endodontic treatment.

Periodontics and oral surgery

Question 7

A patient has generalised probing depths of 5 to 6 mm with bleeding on probing and radiographic bone loss. The first phase of treatment is:

1. Immediate periodontal flap surgery
2. Oral hygiene instruction and non-surgical root surface debridement
3. Systemic antibiotics alone
4. Extraction of all affected teeth

Answer: B. Non-surgical periodontal therapy, meaning oral hygiene instruction and root surface debridement, is always the first phase. Surgery is considered only after reassessment for sites that do not respond. Antibiotics alone do not remove biofilm and calculus.

Question 8

Which patient requires antibiotic prophylaxis before a dental extraction under current guidelines?

1. A patient with a prosthetic heart valve
2. A patient with a hip replacement two years ago
3. A patient with mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation
4. A patient with well-controlled type 2 diabetes

Answer: A. Prophylaxis is recommended for patients at highest risk of adverse outcome from infective endocarditis, including prosthetic valves, previous endocarditis and certain congenital heart conditions. Joint replacements and mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation no longer require routine prophylaxis.

Question 9

During extraction of a maxillary first molar, the tuberosity fractures but remains attached to periosteum. The best management is:

1. Remove the fragment immediately
2. Stabilise the fragment, suture the soft tissue and allow healing, extracting the tooth later if needed
3. Ignore it
4. Pack with gauze and discharge

Answer: B. A tuberosity fragment attached to periosteum has a blood supply and should be preserved: splint or stabilise, close the soft tissue and allow healing. Removing it risks an oroantral communication and loss of denture-bearing bone.

Prosthodontics and paediatric dentistry

Question 10

For a complete denture, the posterior palatal seal is located:

1. On the hard palate anterior to the rugae
2. On the vibrating line between the hard and soft palate
3. Along the buccal sulcus
4. At the incisive papilla

Answer: B. The posterior palatal seal is placed at the vibrating line, the junction of the movable and immovable soft palate, to achieve a border seal and retention of the maxillary complete denture.

Question 11

A 4-year-old presents with a pulpally involved primary molar with no signs of infection and a restorable crown. The treatment of choice is:

1. Extraction
2. Pulpotomy with a stainless steel crown
3. Direct pulp cap with composite
4. Observation only

Answer: B. A vital primary molar with pulp involvement and no periapical pathology is treated by pulpotomy and restored with a stainless steel crown, which preserves the tooth as a space maintainer. Direct pulp capping has poor success in primary teeth.

Question 12

The most appropriate topical fluoride regimen for a high-caries-risk 7-year-old is:

1. No fluoride until age 12
2. Professionally applied fluoride varnish two to four times a year plus fluoride toothpaste
3. Fluoride tablets only
4. Daily mouthwash of 0.2% sodium fluoride only

Answer: B. For high caries risk, professionally applied fluoride varnish two to four times a year alongside twice-daily brushing with fluoride toothpaste is the evidence-based recommendation. Mouthwash is not advised under age 6 to 8 because of swallowing risk.

Pharmacology and infection control

Question 13

Which local anaesthetic is preferred for a patient with a documented allergy to amide anaesthetics and a history of anaphylaxis?

1. Lidocaine
2. Articaine
3. Mepivacaine
4. Refer for allergy testing before treatment; true amide allergy is rare and the reaction may be to another component

Answer: D. True allergy to amide local anaesthetics is very rare; reactions are more often to preservatives, latex or vasovagal events. A documented anaphylaxis history requires allergy assessment before any injection rather than simply switching between amides.

Question 14

Which analgesic is contraindicated in a patient taking warfarin for dental pain?

1. Paracetamol
2. Ibuprofen
3. Codeine
4. Dihydrocodeine

Answer: B. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs increase bleeding risk with warfarin through antiplatelet effect and gastric irritation. Paracetamol is the analgesic of choice, with short-course codeine if needed.

Question 15

The correct sequence for reprocessing reusable dental instruments is:

1. Sterilise, clean, package
2. Clean, inspect, package, sterilise, store
3. Disinfect only
4. Rinse and reuse

Answer: B. Instruments must be cleaned (manually or ultrasonically), inspected, packaged, sterilised in a validated autoclave and stored to maintain sterility. Sterilising soiled instruments is ineffective, and disinfection alone is inadequate for critical items.

How to use these questions

• Score below 9: revise the core clinical subjects before timed mocks. Restorative, endodontics and periodontics carry the most marks.
• Learn the emergency and medical-risk lists: endocarditis prophylaxis, anticoagulated patients, diabetes, pregnancy and local anaesthetic maximum doses appear on every paper.
• Radiograph interpretation questions are frequent; practise describing lesions by site, border, density and relation to teeth.
• Confirm your tier. General dentist and specialist dentist sit different papers; see the specialist dentist guide.

Practice with authority-specific question banks on our Prometric practice exams page, and run the free eligibility check to see which licences you qualify for before you spend anything.

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the Prometric exam for dentists?

100 to 150 MCQs in 2 to 3 hours depending on the authority, pass mark around 60%. The DHA exam for dentists and SCFHS exam for dentists guides list the exact numbers.

Which subjects are weighted most heavily?

Restorative dentistry and endodontics, periodontics and oral surgery together form the largest share, followed by prosthodontics, paediatric dentistry, oral medicine and pathology, radiology, pharmacology and infection control.

Do I need experience to be licensed as a general dentist?

Most GCC authorities require a BDS or DDS, completion of internship, home-country registration and one to two years of post-registration experience. Run the eligibility check for your target authority.

Is the dental Prometric exam harder than the medical one?

It is narrower but deeper within dentistry. Candidates who have practised clinically for two or more years and revise systematically pass at high rates; recent graduates who have not practised find the treatment-planning items hardest.

What does a general dentist earn in the Gulf?

In 2026 roughly AED 12,000 to 25,000 in the UAE, SAR 10,000 to 22,000 in Saudi Arabia and QAR 12,000 to 25,000 in Qatar per month tax free at 3 to 5 years of experience, often with a percentage of production on top in private practice. The salary calculator adjusts for experience.