Prometric Exam Questions for Prosthodontics Specialists 2026: 20 MCQs with Answers on Complete Dentures, Removable Partial Dentures, Fixed Prosthodontics, Occlusion, Implant Prosthodontics, Dental Materials and Maxillofacial Prosthetics

The specialist prosthodontics paper (PRO5051 at DHA, and the equivalent SCFHS, QCHP and NHRA papers) is 100 to 150 single-best-answer questions in up to three hours with a pass mark of about 60%. Candidates with an MDS, MS, MClinDent, a three-year prosthodontic residency or an Arab Board sit it after the authority confirms the specialist title. The Gulf's prosthodontic demand is driven by implant and aesthetic work, but the paper remains anchored in complete and partial denture fundamentals, fixed prosthodontic principles, occlusion and materials. This set covers what recurs. The licensing route is in the specialist dentist guide.

Complete dentures

Question 1

The posterior palatal seal of a maxillary complete denture is placed:

1. On the hard palate anterior to the vibrating line
2. On the compressible soft tissue between the anterior and posterior vibrating lines, at the junction of the movable and immovable soft palate, to compensate for polymerisation shrinkage and maintain the peripheral seal
3. On the movable soft palate
4. Over the incisive papilla

Answer: B. Fovea palatinae are a landmark lying near the vibrating line; an overextended seal causes gagging and loss of retention.

Question 2

An edentulous patient's rest vertical dimension is 68 mm. The occlusal vertical dimension should be set at approximately:

1. 68 mm
2. About 65 to 66 mm, allowing a freeway space (interocclusal rest space) of 2 to 4 mm, confirmed with phonetics (the closest speaking space on "s" sounds) and facial appearance
3. 60 mm
4. 72 mm

Answer: B. An excessive OVD causes clicking teeth, muscle fatigue and a strained appearance; a reduced OVD causes angular cheilitis and an aged appearance.

Question 3

A complete denture patient returns with a generalised sore mouth under the maxillary denture one week after insertion, with a burning sensation, and the denture is tight. The most likely cause is:

1. Underextended borders
2. Excessive occlusal vertical dimension or an occlusal error causing generalised pressure, or a processing error leaving the denture base too tight; occlusion is checked first, then pressure-indicating paste over the whole fitting surface
3. Candidal infection, which never presents in the first week
4. Excess saliva

Answer: B. Localised sore spots indicate overextension or a pressure area; a burning palate with a well-fitting denture suggests denture stomatitis (Candida) or allergy to residual monomer.

Question 4

Which occlusal scheme is recommended for a complete denture patient with a Class II jaw relationship and a severely resorbed lower ridge?

1. Anatomic (33-degree) teeth in canine-guided occlusion
2. Non-anatomic (monoplane or lingualised) occlusion, which reduces lateral forces on the compromised ridge and tolerates jaw relationship discrepancies; lingualised occlusion preserves some aesthetics and food penetration
3. Group function with steep cusps
4. Anterior guidance only

Answer: B. Balanced occlusion is the principle in complete dentures; bilateral balance in excursions prevents tipping of the bases.

Question 5

Which impression technique for a flabby (fibrous) anterior maxillary ridge is correct?

1. A heavy-bodied compressive impression to displace the tissue
2. A selective pressure or window (mucostatic) technique: a close-fitting special tray with a window over the flabby area, the firm tissues recorded under light pressure and the flabby tissue recorded with a low-viscosity material such as impression plaster or light-bodied silicone without displacement
3. Alginate in a stock tray
4. Surgical removal before any impression

Answer: B. Displacing flabby tissue produces a denture that rebounds and loses retention; surgery is reserved for severe cases with adequate bone.

Removable partial dentures

Question 6

A patient has missing lower posterior teeth bilaterally with no teeth distal to the canines. The Kennedy classification and the principal design concern are:

1. Class III; tooth-borne design
2. Class I (bilateral free-end saddles); a tooth-and-tissue-borne design with stress-breaking elements such as RPI clasps (rest, proximal plate, I-bar), altered cast impressions and broad tissue coverage to control rotation around the fulcrum line
3. Class II; unilateral saddle
4. Class IV; anterior saddle

Answer: B. Modification spaces are added for additional edentulous areas, except in Class IV, which has none.

Question 7

The purpose of a guide plane in removable partial denture design is to:

1. Increase the retention of the denture by friction alone
2. Provide a single path of insertion and removal, allow reciprocation so that the retentive clasp arm does not stress the abutment, and improve stability and bracing; guide planes are parallel surfaces prepared on the proximal surfaces of abutments about 2 to 4 mm in height
3. Replace the occlusal rest
4. Act as an indirect retainer

Answer: B. Surveying with a dental surveyor identifies the path of insertion, undercuts and guide planes; indirect retainers resist rotation in free-end saddles.

Question 8

A cobalt-chromium clasp arm should engage an undercut of approximately:

1. 0.75 mm
2. 0.25 mm for cast cobalt-chromium (0.5 mm for wrought wire and about 0.75 mm for gold alloy), measured with the undercut gauge on the surveyor, because cobalt-chromium is stiffer and fractures or distorts if overflexed
3. 1.0 mm
4. No undercut is needed

Answer: B. The retentive tip sits in the gingival third; reciprocation is provided on the opposite surface at the height of contour.

Fixed prosthodontics

Question 9

Which statement about tooth preparation for a full-coverage metal-ceramic crown is correct?

1. A total occlusal convergence of 30 degrees maximises retention
2. A total occlusal convergence of about 10 to 20 degrees, occlusal reduction of 1.5 to 2 mm, axial reduction of about 1.2 to 1.5 mm where porcelain is veneered, a shoulder or heavy chamfer margin for porcelain, and preparation height of at least 3 to 4 mm with auxiliary grooves when retention is compromised
3. A knife-edge margin for porcelain
4. No occlusal reduction on the functional cusp

Answer: B. A functional cusp bevel provides adequate thickness on the loading cusp; margins are placed supragingivally where aesthetics allow.

Question 10

An endodontically treated upper central incisor has lost most of its coronal structure. Which factor most improves the long-term prognosis of the post-and-core and crown?

1. The widest possible post
2. A ferrule of at least 1.5 to 2 mm of sound circumferential dentine above the margin, with a post that preserves radicular dentine, leaves 4 to 5 mm of apical gutta-percha, and is passive rather than threaded; crown lengthening or orthodontic extrusion is considered when ferrule is inadequate
3. A threaded metal post
4. Removal of all gutta-percha

Answer: B. Fibre posts are favoured in teeth with adequate dentine because failures are more often repairable; posts strengthen nothing and serve only to retain the core.

Question 11

A patient wants an all-ceramic crown on a lower first molar with heavy occlusal forces and limited interocclusal space of 1 mm. The most appropriate material is:

1. Feldspathic porcelain
2. Monolithic zirconia (3Y or 4Y), which tolerates reduced thickness (around 0.5 to 1 mm) and high loads, polished rather than glazed on occlusal surfaces to protect the opposing enamel
3. Leucite-reinforced glass ceramic
4. A resin composite crown

Answer: B. Lithium disilicate suits anterior and premolar crowns with 1 to 1.5 mm thickness and adhesive cementation; highly translucent (5Y) zirconia is weaker and used anteriorly.

Question 12

Which cementation protocol is correct for a lithium disilicate veneer?

1. Conventional glass ionomer cement
2. Etch the ceramic with hydrofluoric acid (about 5% for 20 seconds), apply silane, etch and bond the enamel, and cement with a light-cured resin cement under isolation, with excess removed before final polymerisation
3. Zinc phosphate cement
4. Sandblast the ceramic with alumina only

Answer: B. Zirconia is not etchable: it is air-abraded and treated with an MDP-containing primer; glass ceramics rely on adhesive bonding for strength.

Question 13

Ante's law in fixed partial denture design states that:

1. The pontic should be larger than the tooth it replaces
2. The combined pericemental (root surface) area of the abutment teeth should equal or exceed that of the teeth being replaced; it is a guideline, with periodontal health, crown-root ratio (ideally 2:3, minimum 1:1), root configuration and span length also considered
3. Cantilever bridges are always contraindicated
4. Pontics must contact the ridge under pressure

Answer: B. Long spans flex in proportion to the cube of the length; a modified ridge lap pontic is the usual aesthetic design with a convex, cleansable tissue surface.

Occlusion and rehabilitation

Question 14

A patient with severe generalised attrition needs full-mouth rehabilitation. Before increasing the occlusal vertical dimension, the clinician should:

1. Prepare all teeth in one visit at the new height
2. Assess the available freeway space and the need for increase, mount diagnostic casts in centric relation on a semi-adjustable articulator with a facebow, complete a diagnostic wax-up, and test the proposed OVD and occlusal scheme with provisional restorations or an occlusal splint for several weeks before definitive treatment
3. Increase OVD by 10 mm immediately
4. Avoid any change regardless of wear

Answer: B. Dahl appliances or localised composite build-ups can create space for anterior wear; erosive (acid) wear is identified and its cause controlled first, a common issue with carbonated drinks in the Gulf.

Question 15

Centric relation is defined as:

1. The position of maximum intercuspation of the teeth
2. A maxillomandibular relationship in which the condyles articulate in the anterior-superior position against the posterior slopes of the articular eminences, independent of tooth contact; it is a reproducible reference position used for mounting casts and for complete denture and rehabilitation occlusion
3. The habitual closing position
4. The position when the patient swallows

Answer: B. Maximum intercuspation (centric occlusion) often differs from centric relation by a small slide; bimanual manipulation and leaf gauges are used to record it.

Implant prosthodontics and digital workflow

Question 16

An edentulous mandible is to be restored with an implant-retained overdenture. The evidence-based minimum is:

1. Six implants with a fixed bridge
2. Two implants in the canine regions with independent attachments (locator-type) or a bar, which the McGill and York consensus statements identify as the minimum standard of care for the edentulous mandible, improving retention, chewing and quality of life over a conventional denture
3. A single midline implant is never acceptable
4. Four implants are mandatory

Answer: B. A single midline implant overdenture is an accepted lower-cost alternative in selected patients; the maxilla usually needs four or more implants and palateless designs need careful planning.

Question 17

Which statement about screw-retained versus cement-retained implant crowns is correct?

1. Cement-retained crowns are always preferable
2. Screw-retained restorations are retrievable and avoid residual cement, a known cause of peri-implantitis; cement retention is chosen when the screw access would compromise aesthetics or occlusion, using minimal cement and a custom abutment with margins no deeper than about 1 mm subgingivally
3. Residual cement is harmless
4. Screw loosening never occurs

Answer: B. Angulated screw channels now allow screw retention in many anterior cases; torque values follow the manufacturer and are rechecked.

Question 18

At a five-year review, an implant has bleeding on probing, probing depth of 7 mm, suppuration and 3 mm of bone loss compared with the baseline radiograph. The diagnosis and management are:

1. Healthy implant; routine maintenance
2. Peri-implantitis; non-surgical debridement with appropriate instruments, antimicrobial adjuncts, control of risk factors (smoking, diabetes, poor hygiene, excess cement, restoration contours), and surgical access with decontamination and regenerative or resective treatment for persistent disease, with the prosthesis removed if needed for access
3. Peri-implant mucositis; polishing only
4. Explant immediately in all cases

Answer: B. Mucositis has inflammation without bone loss beyond initial remodelling; a baseline radiograph at prosthesis delivery is essential, and the 2017 World Workshop classification is the reference.

Question 19

Which statement about intraoral scanning and CAD/CAM restorations is correct?

1. Digital impressions are less accurate than conventional for all cases
2. Intraoral scans are highly accurate for single units and short-span fixed prostheses, with reduced accuracy over full arches and in recording deep subgingival margins or mobile tissues; milled zirconia and lithium disilicate restorations from digital workflows show clinical outcomes comparable to conventional ones
3. Scanners record the soft tissue under pressure
4. CAD/CAM has no place in removable prosthodontics

Answer: B. Digitally designed and printed or milled complete dentures are increasingly used; the clinician still verifies fit, occlusion and margins.

Question 20

A patient has had a maxillectomy for a tumour, leaving an oroantral communication. The prosthodontic management sequence is:

1. Wait a year before any prosthesis
2. A surgical obturator placed at operation to support packing and allow early speech and swallowing, an interim obturator during healing (adjusted as the defect changes), and a definitive obturator about 3 to 6 months after surgery or radiotherapy, with hollow bulb design to reduce weight and retention from remaining teeth or implants
3. Immediate definitive obturator
4. No prosthesis; surgical flap only

Answer: B. Aramany classification describes maxillectomy defects; radiotherapy increases osteoradionecrosis risk, so implants and extractions in irradiated bone require careful planning.

How to practise

• Learn the numbers: freeway space, undercut depths by alloy, preparation dimensions, ferrule height, material thicknesses, implant minimum standards.
• Know the classifications: Kennedy, Aramany, peri-implant diseases, ceramic types.
• Practise diagnosis of denture problems: the paper loves post-insertion troubleshooting.
• Practise under time in the Prosthodontics bank (5,000 explained questions in 33 chapters) with the error-log method.

Related sets: general dentistry questions, orthodontics questions and periodontics questions. Other specialist dental banks: Restorative Dentistry and Implantology. The image-practice plan is in dental exam preparation.

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are in the Prometric prosthodontics specialist exam?

Typically 100 to 150 single-best-answer MCQs in up to three hours, with a pass mark of about 60%, varying by authority.

Which prosthodontics topics come up most?

Complete denture fundamentals and troubleshooting, removable partial denture design, crown preparation and post-and-core principles, ceramic selection and cementation, occlusion and implant prosthodontics.

Does the exam include implant dentistry?

Yes, at the level of treatment planning, restoration design, maintenance and peri-implant disease; surgical placement is covered in the oral surgery and implantology papers.

Can a general dentist with an implant diploma get the prosthodontics title?

No. The specialist title requires a recognised full-time postgraduate prosthodontics programme of about three years.

Are these real exam questions?

No. They are original practice questions written to the published blueprint. Real exam content is confidential.