DHA Exam Questions for Doctors 2026: What the General Practitioner Paper (GEN5331) Tests, Pass Mark and Format, Why the 'DHA GP Questions PDF' Files Are Outdated, and 20 Free DHA-style MCQs with Answers Across Medicine, Surgery, Paediatrics, Obstetrics, Emergency and Ethics

The DHA exam for doctors is the general practice paper (GEN5331) for GPs and a specialty paper for each specialist title, delivered by Prometric after the Dubai Health Authority confirms your eligibility. The GP paper is broad, clinical and written to current international guidelines, which is why the recalled "DHA GP questions" PDFs that circulate in groups fail so many candidates: the answers in them are years out of date. This guide explains the format and gives 20 free DHA-style questions with answers. The licence route is in the DHA licence for doctors and the preparation plan in DHA exam preparation for doctors.

The DHA GP exam at a glance (2026)

Item	General Practitioner (GEN5331)
Delivery	Computer-based at Prometric centres worldwide, booked after Sheryan issues eligibility
Questions	About 150 single-best-answer MCQs, some with images, ECGs or laboratory data
Time	About 3 hours
Pass mark	About 60 to 65% (the eligibility letter is the authoritative source; see DHA passing score by profession)
Blueprint	Internal medicine (largest), surgery, paediatrics, obstetrics and gynaecology, emergency medicine, psychiatry, family and community medicine, dermatology, ENT and ophthalmology basics, pharmacology, ethics and UAE regulations
Specialists	A separate paper per specialty (for example INT5921 internal medicine, PED5391 paediatrics, OBG5891 obstetrics); consultants may be interviewed instead
Attempts and fee	Usually three per eligibility; about USD 220 to 300 per attempt (DHA fees)

Why the "DHA exam questions for doctors PDF" fails candidates

• Outdated guidelines: the files still teach older hypertension thresholds, pre-SGLT2 diabetes pathways and superseded sepsis definitions; the exam follows current ESC, ADA, GINA, GOLD, NICE-style and WHO guidance.
• Unverified answers: recall lists are answered by whoever typed them; our tutors find 20 to 30% error rates.
• Not DHA questions: DHA does not release its item bank; the same files are relabelled for MOH, HAAD and SCFHS.
• No timing or reasoning: the paper rewards pace on screen and the ability to answer variations, which only explained practice builds (more on the PDF trap).

20 free DHA-style questions for doctors

Internal medicine

1. A 58-year-old with type 2 diabetes, heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and an eGFR of 50 needs a second glucose-lowering agent after metformin. Best choice: (A) sulfonylurea (B) SGLT2 inhibitor (C) pioglitazone (D) DPP-4 inhibitor. Answer: B. Cardiovascular and renal benefit.

2. A 45-year-old has blood pressure of 150/95 on two visits with no end-organ damage. After lifestyle advice, first-line drug therapy in a non-Black patient under 55 is: (A) beta blocker (B) ACE inhibitor or ARB, or a calcium channel blocker, often in combination (C) alpha blocker (D) loop diuretic. Answer: B.

3. A 30-year-old woman has fatigue, weight gain, a TSH of 18 mU/L and low free T4. Treatment: (A) carbimazole (B) levothyroxine, rechecking TSH in 6 to 8 weeks (C) propranolol (D) observation. Answer: B.

4. A patient with COPD on air has saturations of 86% and is drowsy. Oxygen target: (A) 100% (B) 88 to 92% via controlled oxygen with a blood gas (C) 94 to 98% (D) withhold oxygen. Answer: B.

Emergency medicine

5. A 55-year-old with crushing chest pain has ST elevation in II, III and aVF. Which drug is used with caution? (A) aspirin (B) nitrates, because of possible right ventricular involvement and hypotension (C) heparin (D) clopidogrel. Answer: B. Obtain V4R.

6. A 68-year-old with facial droop and arm weakness for 50 minutes should: (A) wait for the ward round (B) have an immediate CT and CT angiography for thrombolysis within 4.5 hours or thrombectomy (C) receive aspirin before imaging (D) be observed overnight. Answer: B.

7. A 20-year-old presents four hours after taking 30 × 500 mg paracetamol and is asymptomatic. Management: (A) discharge (B) four-hour paracetamol level plotted on the nomogram, LFTs, INR, and acetylcysteine if above the treatment line or ingestion time is uncertain (C) activated charcoal only (D) naloxone. Answer: B.

8. A labourer collapses in July with a rectal temperature of 41.5 °C and confusion. First: (A) paracetamol (B) immediate aggressive cooling to below 39 °C within 30 minutes, airway, glucose, then transfer (C) slow rewarming (D) oral fluids. Answer: B. Exertional heat stroke.

Surgery

9. A 25-year-old has 24 hours of periumbilical pain migrating to the right iliac fossa, fever and rebound tenderness. Next step: (A) oral antibiotics and review in two days (B) surgical referral for appendicectomy with imaging as needed (C) discharge with analgesia (D) colonoscopy. Answer: B.

10. A 60-year-old with a painless jaundice, palpable gallbladder and weight loss most likely has: (A) gallstones (B) carcinoma of the head of the pancreas (C) hepatitis A (D) haemolysis. Answer: B. Courvoisier's law.

11. A 70 kg man has partial-thickness burns to the anterior trunk and one arm. Parkland first-24-hour volume: (A) 2 L (B) about 7.6 L, half in the first 8 hours (C) 15 L (D) 1 L. Answer: B. 4 × 70 × 27%.

Paediatrics

12. A 2-year-old with a barking cough, hoarse voice and stridor at rest should receive: (A) antibiotics (B) a single dose of oral dexamethasone, with nebulised adrenaline if severe (C) throat examination with a tongue depressor (D) bronchodilators. Answer: B. Croup.

13. An 18-month-old has a 3-minute generalised seizure with a temperature of 39.5 °C and recovers fully. Advice: (A) lifelong antiepileptics (B) simple febrile seizure; first-aid teaching, seek help if over 5 minutes, antipyretics do not prevent recurrence (C) CT head (D) aspirin for fever. Answer: B.

14. A 4-year-old with a non-blanching rash, fever and lethargy should receive: (A) oral antibiotics at home (B) immediate intravenous ceftriaxone after cultures, fluid bolus and admission for suspected meningococcal sepsis (C) topical cream (D) antihistamine. Answer: B.

Obstetrics and gynaecology

15. A woman at 32 weeks has blood pressure of 165/110, headache and 3+ proteinuria. Management: (A) reassurance (B) admission, antihypertensives, magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and delivery planning (C) outpatient review in a week (D) paracetamol. Answer: B. Severe pre-eclampsia.

16. A woman at 26 weeks has an oral glucose tolerance test diagnostic of gestational diabetes. First-line management: (A) insulin immediately (B) dietary and activity advice with self-monitoring, then metformin or insulin if targets are not met within one to two weeks (C) sulfonylurea (D) no treatment. Answer: B.

Psychiatry and ethics

17. A patient on an antipsychotic has fever of 40 °C, rigidity, fluctuating consciousness and CK of 9,000 U/L. Diagnosis: (A) serotonin syndrome (B) neuroleptic malignant syndrome; stop the drug, cool, fluids, dantrolene or bromocriptine (C) heat stroke (D) catatonia. Answer: B.

18. A competent adult refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons before elective surgery. The doctor should: (A) transfuse if needed regardless (B) respect the refusal, document the discussion and plan bloodless alternatives (C) seek a court order automatically (D) cancel all care. Answer: B.

19. A patient diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis in Dubai must be: (A) discharged with no follow-up (B) placed on airborne precautions, started on treatment and notified to the public health authority, with residency implications explained (C) treated without notification (D) given oral antibiotics only. Answer: B.

20. A patient's relative asks for the patient's HIV result without the patient's consent. The doctor should: (A) disclose because they are family (B) maintain confidentiality and discuss with the patient, disclosing only where the law requires (C) hint at the result (D) write it on the discharge summary for the family. Answer: B.

How to prepare for the DHA doctors' exam

1. Confirm your title (GP, specialist or consultant) with the free eligibility check; the title decides the paper.
2. Work through the General Practice bank (5,600 explained MCQs in 56 chapters, chapter 1 free) by system with an error log (error-log method); specialists use their specialty bank (browse exams).
3. Use the free 20-question sets: GP questions, internal medicine, emergency medicine, paediatrics, obstetrics and gynaecology and family medicine.
4. Sit three timed 150-question mocks in the last two weeks (how to pass the DHA exam first attempt), then book through Prometric once Sheryan shows eligibility (how to apply for a DHA licence).

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are in the DHA exam for doctors?

About 150 MCQs in about 3 hours for the GP paper, and 100 to 150 for most specialist papers, with a pass mark of about 60 to 65%.

Is the DHA GP exam the same as the MOH and DOH exams?

The blueprints are very similar; DHA and MOHAP use Prometric and DOH uses Pearson VUE, so one preparation covers all three.

Where can I get free DHA exam questions for doctors?

The 20 questions above, the free specialty sets linked in this article, and the free chapter 1 of the General Practice bank and every specialty bank.

Do specialists sit the GP paper?

No. Each specialist title has its own paper; consultants may be assessed by interview instead.

How long should a doctor prepare for the DHA exam?

Four to eight weeks of daily practice for doctors in active clinical work; longer after a practice gap.