
Prometric Exam Questions for Physiotherapists 2026: 15 Practice MCQs with Answers and Rationale
Fifteen Prometric-style physiotherapy MCQs covering musculoskeletal, neurological and cardiopulmonary physiotherapy, electrotherapy, exercise and paediatrics, each with the answer and a short rationale. Written to the DHA, DOH, MOHAP, SCFHS and QCHP physiotherapist blueprints.
The physiotherapist Prometric paper used by DHA, MOHAP, SHA, SCFHS, QCHP, NHRA, OMSB and Kuwait MOH (and the Pearson VUE paper used by DOH Abu Dhabi) tests whether you can assess and treat safely. It is a computer-based paper of single-best-answer MCQs, usually 100 to 150 items over 2 to 3 hours, with a pass mark of about 60%.
The fifteen questions below follow that blueprint. Give yourself about 70 seconds per question, then read every rationale. The exam repeats reasoning patterns — special tests, precautions, contraindications, stop criteria — much more than it repeats individual facts.
For the full syllabus and the differences between authorities, read the Prometric exam for physiotherapists guide. For timed papers, use the Physiotherapist question bank.
Musculoskeletal and orthopaedic physiotherapy
Question 1
A footballer twisted his knee and heard a pop. Which test is the most sensitive for an acute anterior cruciate ligament tear?
- Anterior drawer test
- Lachman test
- McMurray test
- Valgus stress test
Answer: B. The Lachman test, performed at 20–30° of knee flexion, is the most sensitive clinical test for an ACL tear, especially in the acute knee when hamstring guarding makes the anterior drawer unreliable. McMurray tests the menisci and the valgus stress test tests the medial collateral ligament.
Question 2
A patient has pain only between 60° and 120° of active shoulder abduction. This painful arc most suggests:
- Acromioclavicular joint arthritis
- Subacromial impingement or rotator cuff tendinopathy
- Adhesive capsulitis
- Anterior glenohumeral dislocation
Answer: B. A painful arc in the mid-range of abduction is the classic sign of subacromial impingement. Pain at the very end of range (about 170–180°) points to the acromioclavicular joint. Adhesive capsulitis causes a global loss of range, with external rotation most limited.
Question 3
On day 2 after a total hip replacement through a posterior approach, which movement must the patient avoid?
- Hip abduction in side lying with a pillow
- Hip flexion beyond 90° combined with adduction and internal rotation
- Isometric quadriceps contraction
- Ankle pumping
Answer: B. After a posterior approach, flexion past 90°, adduction across the midline and internal rotation all stress the posterior capsule and risk dislocation. Quadriceps sets and ankle pumps are encouraged from day one. Always check the surgeon's protocol, because anterior approaches carry different precautions.
Question 4
Which ligament is most commonly injured in an inversion ankle sprain?
- Deltoid ligament
- Calcaneofibular ligament
- Anterior talofibular ligament
- Posterior talofibular ligament
Answer: C. The anterior talofibular ligament is the weakest lateral ligament and the first to tear in plantarflexion with inversion. The calcaneofibular ligament is involved in more severe sprains. The deltoid ligament is on the medial side.
Neurological physiotherapy
Question 5
A patient after a right-hemisphere stroke actively pushes with the non-affected arm and resists correction to midline. In which direction does the patient push?
- Towards the non-paretic side
- Towards the paretic (hemiplegic) side
- Backwards only
- Forwards only
Answer: B. In pusher syndrome the patient pushes towards the paretic side because their perception of upright is tilted. Treatment uses visual feedback of verticality, such as a mirror, a door frame or the therapist's body, rather than forcing the patient back to midline.
Question 6
A patient has a complete spinal cord injury at the C6 level. Which key muscle function should be preserved?
- Elbow extension
- Wrist extension
- Finger flexion
- Finger abduction
Answer: B. The key muscles for C6 are the wrist extensors. Active wrist extension allows a tenodesis grip, which is central to functional training. Elbow extension is C7, finger flexion C8 and finger abduction T1.
Question 7
Which strategy best improves gait speed and stride length in a patient with Parkinson's disease who has freezing episodes?
- Passive stretching only
- External auditory or visual cues, such as a metronome or floor lines
- Complete bed rest during "off" periods
- Strengthening exercises with no gait practice
Answer: B. External cueing bypasses the impaired internal timing of the basal ganglia and is one of the best-supported interventions for freezing and short, shuffling steps. It is combined with amplitude-based training and balance work.
Question 8
On the Modified Ashworth Scale, grade 1+ means:
- No increase in muscle tone
- A slight increase in tone, with a catch followed by minimal resistance through less than half of the range
- A marked increase in tone through most of the range, but the part is easily moved
- The affected part is rigid
Answer: B. Grade 1 is a catch and release or minimal resistance at the end of range. Grade 1+ adds minimal resistance through the remainder (less than half) of the range. Grade 2 is marked tone through most of the range, and grade 4 is rigidity.
Cardiopulmonary physiotherapy
Question 9
What is the most effective way to prevent atelectasis after upper abdominal surgery?
- Strict bed rest in the supine position
- Deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry and early mobilisation
- Routine oxygen therapy alone
- Avoiding coughing to protect the wound
Answer: B. Shallow breathing from pain and lying flat causes basal collapse. Deep breathing, incentive spirometry, supported coughing with a pillow over the wound and early mobilisation restore lung volumes. Good analgesia makes all of these possible.
Question 10
During a cardiac rehabilitation session, which finding means you should stop exercise?
- Heart rate rising in line with workload
- A fall in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg as workload increases
- Mild breathlessness at a Borg rating of 12
- Sweating
Answer: B. Systolic blood pressure should rise with workload. A drop of more than 10 mmHg suggests poor cardiac output or ischaemia and is an indication to stop. Other stop criteria include chest pain, new arrhythmia, dizziness, pallor and marked breathlessness.
Question 11
Which condition is a contraindication to the head-down tilt position for postural drainage?
- Bronchiectasis
- Raised intracranial pressure
- Cystic fibrosis
- Lower lobe pneumonia
Answer: B. Head-down tilt increases intracranial pressure. It is also avoided in uncontrolled hypertension, recent eye or neurosurgery, severe breathlessness, gastro-oesophageal reflux and late pregnancy. Bronchiectasis and cystic fibrosis are common indications for airway clearance.
Electrotherapy and exercise prescription
Question 12
Therapeutic ultrasound is contraindicated over which area?
- A healing lateral ankle ligament
- The pregnant uterus
- The upper trapezius
- A chronic patellar tendinopathy
Answer: B. Ultrasound must not be applied over the pregnant uterus, the eyes, malignant tissue, areas of active bleeding or deep vein thrombosis, or the open growth plates of children. The other options are routine treatment sites.
Question 13
Conventional, high-frequency TENS relieves pain mainly through which mechanism?
- Gate control at the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
- Heating of deep tissue
- Direct muscle strengthening
- Increasing blood viscosity
Answer: A. High-frequency, low-intensity TENS stimulates large-diameter A-beta fibres, which inhibit nociceptive transmission at the dorsal horn — the gate control theory. Low-frequency, acupuncture-like TENS is thought to act more through endogenous opioid release.
Question 14
A patient moves the elbow through full range against gravity but cannot tolerate any added resistance. On the Oxford (MRC) scale this is grade:
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Answer: B. Grade 3 is full range against gravity without resistance. Grade 2 is full range with gravity eliminated, grade 4 is movement against some resistance and grade 5 is normal strength.
Paediatric physiotherapy
Question 15
A mother brings her 18-month-old child who is not yet walking independently. The most appropriate action is to:
- Reassure her that this is normal and review at 3 years
- Refer for a developmental assessment
- Start a baby walker at home
- Advise splinting of both ankles
Answer: B. Most children walk independently by 12–15 months. Not walking by 18 months is a red flag that needs a developmental assessment to rule out conditions such as cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy or global delay. Baby walkers are discouraged because they cause injuries and do not speed up walking.
How to use these questions
- Score yourself honestly. Twelve or more correct is a good sign. Below ten, go back to the weaker domain before you book the exam.
- Learn the pattern, not the answer. For every question, write down why each wrong option is wrong. That is how the real exam disguises the same concept.
- Practise under time. Sit full timed blocks in the Physiotherapist bank. Physiotherapy technicians should use the Physiotherapy Technician bank.
- Follow a plan. The 30-day study plan works for physiotherapists with the domains swapped, and the preparation mistakes list will save you a retake.
Your authority's specific route is covered in the DHA licence for physiotherapists, and on the SCFHS, QCHP and DOH physiotherapy exam pages. Once you have eligibility, join the physiotherapist talent pool so Gulf employers can find you.
Frequently asked questions
How many questions are in the Prometric physiotherapy exam?
Usually 100 to 150 single-best-answer MCQs over 2 to 3 hours. The exact number depends on the authority and your title, and is stated in your eligibility notice.
What is the pass mark for the physiotherapist Prometric exam?
About 60% for most Gulf authorities. Some use a scaled score, so the report shows pass or fail rather than a raw percentage (pass scores by authority).
Which topics carry the most marks?
Musculoskeletal and orthopaedic rehabilitation usually carries the largest share, followed by neurological and cardiopulmonary physiotherapy. Electrotherapy, exercise prescription, paediatrics and ethics make up the rest.
Are these the real exam questions?
No. They are original practice questions written to the published blueprint. Real exam items are confidential, and anyone selling "leaked" questions is selling you a risk to your licence.
Is the physiotherapy exam the same for DHA and SCFHS?
The content is very similar, because both follow the same broad physiotherapy blueprint. The number of questions, timing and pass rules differ, so check your authority's candidate information.
Practice banks for this exam
Chapter-wise MCQs with written reasoning on every question, and timed mocks at the real pass mark.