Prometric Exam Questions for Anaesthesia Technicians 2026: 15 Practice MCQs with Answers and Rationale

The anaesthesia technician (ANA5701) and technologist (ANA5702) Prometric papers test whether you can keep a patient safe in theatre: check the machine, prepare the airway, read the monitors, draw up the right drug and act in an emergency. Most Gulf authorities set 100 to 120 single-best-answer MCQs over 2 to 2.5 hours, with a pass mark of about 60%.

The fifteen questions below follow that blueprint. Allow about 70 seconds each and read every rationale. The exam returns to the same patterns again and again: pre-use checks, tube and mask sizes, capnography, reversal agents and the malignant hyperthermia protocol.

For titles, requirements by authority and the full syllabus, read the Prometric exam for anaesthesia technicians guide. For timed papers use the Anaesthesia Technician bank or the Anaesthesia Technologist bank.

Anaesthesia machine and equipment

Question 1

Which colour identifies the oxygen cylinder under the international (ISO) colour code used in most Gulf hospitals?

1. Black body with a white shoulder
2. Entirely white
3. Grey
4. Blue

Answer: B. Under the ISO standard, medical oxygen cylinders are white (older UK cylinders were black with a white shoulder). Nitrous oxide is blue, carbon dioxide is grey and medical air is black and white. Always confirm the label as well as the colour before connecting.

Question 2

Which breathing system is most efficient for spontaneous ventilation in an adult?

1. Mapleson A (Magill or Lack)
2. Mapleson D (Bain)
3. Mapleson E (Ayre's T-piece)
4. Mapleson C

Answer: A. The Mapleson A needs a fresh gas flow of about 70–100% of minute volume for spontaneous breathing, making it the most efficient of the Mapleson systems in that mode. The Mapleson D is more efficient for controlled ventilation. The circle system with CO₂ absorption is the most economical overall.

Question 3

Soda lime in the circle system has turned violet. This means:

1. The absorbent is fresh
2. The absorbent is exhausted and should be changed
3. The vaporiser is leaking
4. Oxygen supply has failed

Answer: B. The indicator dye changes colour as the absorbent is used up. Rising inspired CO₂ on capnography confirms exhaustion. Change the canister between cases, never during an active breathing circuit without a plan for ventilation.

Question 4

The oxygen flush valve on an anaesthesia machine delivers approximately:

1. 2–4 L/min
2. 10–15 L/min
3. 35–75 L/min
4. 100–150 L/min

Answer: C. The flush bypasses the flowmeters and vaporisers and delivers 35–75 L/min of pure oxygen at pipeline pressure. Using it during inspiration with a closed system risks barotrauma, and it dilutes volatile agent in the circuit.

Airway management

Question 5

Which endotracheal tube internal diameter is usually appropriate for a healthy 4-year-old child using an uncuffed tube?

1. 3.5 mm
2. 5.0 mm
3. 6.5 mm
4. 7.5 mm

Answer: B. The classic formula for an uncuffed tube is age in years divided by 4, plus 4, giving 5.0 mm at age 4. A cuffed tube is usually half a size smaller. Always have one size above and one below ready.

Question 6

A classic laryngeal mask airway size 4 is usually chosen for:

1. A child of 10–20 kg
2. A small adult of about 30–50 kg
3. An adult of about 50–70 kg
4. A large adult over 100 kg

Answer: C. Size 3 suits 30–50 kg, size 4 about 50–70 kg and size 5 about 70–100 kg, with the cuff inflated to the maximum volume printed on the device or to the recommended cuff pressure.

Question 7

Immediately after intubation, the most reliable confirmation that the tube is in the trachea is:

1. Chest rise
2. Misting in the tube
3. Sustained waveform capnography over several breaths
4. Breath sounds heard over the stomach

Answer: C. A sustained end-tidal CO₂ waveform is the gold standard. Chest rise and misting can occur with oesophageal placement, and auscultation is unreliable. During cardiac arrest the trace may be low but should still be present.

Question 8

Cricoid pressure during rapid sequence induction is applied with a force of about:

1. 1 N
2. 10 N before loss of consciousness, increased to about 30 N after
3. 100 N
4. It is never used

Answer: B. About 10 N (1 kg) is applied while the patient is awake and increased to about 30 N (3 kg) once consciousness is lost. It is released if the patient actively vomits, if laryngoscopy view is poor on request, or if it obstructs the airway.

Monitoring

Question 9

A capnography trace shows a gradual upward slope of the plateau phase (a "shark fin" shape). This most suggests:

1. Oesophageal intubation
2. Bronchospasm or chronic obstructive airway disease
3. Exhausted soda lime
4. Circuit disconnection

Answer: B. Slow, uneven emptying of alveoli produces a sloping plateau, typical of bronchospasm, asthma or COPD. A raised baseline suggests rebreathing or exhausted absorbent. Sudden loss of the trace suggests disconnection, dislodgement or cardiac arrest.

Question 10

Pulse oximetry readings are falsely reassuring in which situation?

1. Anaemia
2. Carbon monoxide poisoning
3. Jaundice
4. Hypothermia with good perfusion

Answer: B. A standard two-wavelength oximeter reads carboxyhaemoglobin as oxygenated haemoglobin, so saturation looks normal in carbon monoxide poisoning. Methaemoglobin, nail varnish, movement and poor perfusion also affect readings.

Question 11

Train-of-four monitoring shows a TOF ratio of 0.5 at the end of surgery. The patient:

1. Has fully recovered and can be extubated
2. Has residual neuromuscular block and needs reversal before extubation
3. Needs more muscle relaxant
4. Has malignant hyperthermia

Answer: B. A TOF ratio of at least 0.9 is required for safe extubation. At 0.5 there is significant residual block, with a risk of airway obstruction and aspiration. Neostigmine with glycopyrrolate, or sugammadex for rocuronium or vecuronium, is given and recovery rechecked.

Pharmacology and calculations

Question 12

Which drug is the specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

1. Dantrolene
2. Sugammadex
3. Neostigmine
4. Flumazenil

Answer: A. Dantrolene is given at 2.5 mg/kg intravenously and repeated as needed, with the triggering volatile agent stopped, 100% oxygen at high flow, active cooling and treatment of hyperkalaemia and acidosis. Every theatre must know where the dantrolene is kept.

Question 13

Adrenaline 1 mg is added to 100 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride. The concentration of the solution is:

1. 1 mcg/mL
2. 10 mcg/mL
3. 100 mcg/mL
4. 1 mg/mL

Answer: B. 1 mg is 1,000 mcg; divided by 100 mL gives 10 mcg/mL. Dilution calculations appear in every paper, so practise converting mg to mcg and checking the final volume.

Question 14

The maximum recommended dose of plain lidocaine for local infiltration in a 70 kg adult is about:

1. 3 mg/kg, roughly 210 mg
2. 7 mg/kg, roughly 490 mg
3. 1 mg/kg, roughly 70 mg
4. 20 mg/kg, roughly 1,400 mg

Answer: A. Plain lidocaine is limited to about 3 mg/kg; with adrenaline the limit rises to about 7 mg/kg. Signs of toxicity include perioral tingling, tinnitus, seizures and arrhythmias, treated with lipid emulsion according to the local anaesthetic toxicity protocol.

Perioperative safety

Question 15

The WHO Surgical Safety Checklist "time out" is performed:

1. Before induction of anaesthesia
2. Before the skin incision, with the whole team present
3. After the patient leaves the operating room
4. Only for emergency cases

Answer: B. The checklist has three parts: sign in before induction, time out before skin incision, and sign out before the patient leaves theatre. The anaesthesia technician confirms equipment, allergies, airway risk and blood availability at sign in.

How to use these questions

• Draw the machine. If you can sketch the gas path from cylinder to patient, most equipment questions become easy.
• Learn sizes and doses as tables. Tube, mask and LMA sizes, reversal doses and emergency drug doses are pure recall and pure marks.
• Practise under time in the Technician bank or Technologist bank, and avoid the common preparation mistakes.

Authority pages: DHA, SCFHS, QCHP and DOH. When you have eligibility, join the anaesthesia technician talent pool.

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are in the Prometric anaesthesia technician exam?

Usually 100 to 120 MCQs over 2 to 2.5 hours. The exact format is stated in your eligibility notice.

What is the pass mark?

About 60% for most Gulf authorities (pass scores by authority).

Is the technologist exam harder than the technician exam?

It covers the same blueprint with more physiology, pharmacology and interpretation questions. The pass rules are similar.

Which topics carry the most marks?

The anaesthesia machine and pharmacology each carry about a fifth of the paper, followed by airway, monitoring, emergencies and safety.

Are these real exam questions?

No. They are original practice questions written to the published blueprint. Real exam content is confidential.